Posted by BenQuilter
Sazar, would you not agree though that the two equations (vf=vi+at, and vf=vi-gt) are exactly the same thing? (its just that the acceleration was not given in the problem becuase it was a known constant, but is it not still accleration, and thus using a is just as good as g?).
and 1 more thing. she said it should be vf=vi-gt. now if she expected the g to have a "-" value (which she seemed to have), would not the problem be transformed into vf=vi-(-g)t, and thus turned into vf=vi+gt?